Question of the Day

If Jesus could (and did) heal individual blind people, as the gospels assert, why didn’t Jesus just go ahead and heal blindness as such?

After all, either Jesus had the power to do it, and did not. Or he wanted to heal all blindness, but could not.

Which is it?

About Santi Tafarella

I teach writing and literature at Antelope Valley College in California.
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1 Response to Question of the Day

  1. Minds Erased says:

    Good question. It brings into question even more, at least for me, about whether Jesus really healed anyone at all of anything other than their ennui and their yearning to belong to something. Perhaps the gospels were written by – GASP! – fallible humans who didn’t get their facts straight.

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